How to make sure seller has a property's deeds?

iwico · #1 16-03-2008, 02:54 PM

Someone says below:

"The problem is, Not all houses even have deeds, in the communist times everything belonged to the state therefore the only way to prove ownership of a property after the fall of communism was to present the original deeds of your grandparents etc. dating back to the 1930s-1940s. Without this the property has an 'assumed deed' which prevents the current occupants from being evicted, but, not able to really sell the property. Its easy for a Bulgarian to go into the property under a further 'assumed deed' but when a company wishes to have 100% clear title- so much more complicated"

How many percentage of properties in there only hava a "assumed deed"?

If I try to buy a property, how do I know the owner has a "real deed" or a "assumed deed"? (I talk about the old properties--house with land, not newly built properties).

Regards

thetravelbug · #2 16-03-2008, 05:51 PM

Out of the 12 rural houses/land I have bought I have NEVER had an 'assumed deed'. Out of all the properties I have sold to clients I have NEVER had an 'assummed deed'.

Usually, where possible, the agent checks the notary deed and skitsa prior to listing the property for sale. This does not guarantee there will be no problems when all paperwork taken to lawyer/notary etc but ensures owner holds title to property they are purporting to sell.

Only trouble I have ever had with title, is that for one house the municipality still owned the land, but owners had title to house. However, this could be solved by application to municipality.

Rachel